Original WAEC Chemistry Past Questions and Answers (Updated to 2024)

Preparing effectively for the WAEC Chemistry exam is key to success, and one of the most efficient ways to prepare is by using original past questions and answers—specifically those updated to 2024. These resources give you a clear insight into the exam format, the types of questions asked, and the important topics emphasized over time.


Why Practice with Original WAEC Chemistry Past Questions?

Original WAEC Chemistry past questions provide several advantages:

  • Authentic Exam Experience: You get to practice questions almost identical to what appears in the actual exam.

  • Topic Familiarity: They highlight the frequently recurring areas like Organic Chemistry, Atomic Structure, Chemical Reactions, and more.

  • Time Management Skills: By practicing with real past questions, you learn how to allocate exam time efficiently.

  • Error Identification: Reviewing your attempts against provided answers helps you pinpoint and correct mistakes.


Structure of the WAEC Chemistry Examination

The Chemistry exam typically involves three papers:

  • Paper 1: Objective multiple-choice questions (multiple options per question).

  • Paper 2: Theory questions, including structured and essay questions focusing on explanation, equations, calculations, and experimental skills.

  • Paper 3: Practical or alternative to practical paper involving experiments, observations, and data interpretation.

Each paper tests various facets of chemistry knowledge, from theory to application.


Key Topics Based on 2024 WAEC Chemistry Past Questions

The updated 2024 past questions emphasize core topics, such as:

  • Atomic structure and periodic table

  • Chemical bonding and molecular structure

  • Stoichiometry and chemical calculations

  • States of matter and gas laws

  • Acids, bases, and salts

  • Organic chemistry including hydrocarbons, alcohols, and polymers

  • Electrochemistry and oxidation-reduction reactions

  • Environmental chemistry

  • Laboratory practical skills and data analysis


Benefits of Using 2024 Updated Chemistry Past Questions and Answers

  • Relevance: They reflect the latest syllabus and exam trend adjustments.

  • Answer Explanations: Step-by-step solutions help deepen understanding.

  • Confidence Boost: Regular practice reduces exam anxiety.

  • Convenient Access: Many educational platforms offer free or low-cost downloadable resources.

 

WAEC Chemistry Past Questions and Answers

  1. Which of the following metals is common to both brass and bronze?
    (a) Aluminium
    (b) Copper
    (c) Lead
    (d) Iron
    Answer: (b) Copper

  2. The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is:
    (a) Dihydric alkanol
    (b) Tertiary alkanol
    (c) Trihydric alkanol
    (d) Monohydric alkanol
    Answer: (d) Monohydric alkanol

  3. When an alkene is formed by heating a compound X with concentrated tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid, X is likely:
    (a) Alkane
    (b) Alkanol
    (c) Alkanoate
    (d) Alkyne
    Answer: (b) Alkanol

  4. Ripening of fruits is hastened by using:
    (a) Ethanol
    (b) Ethane
    (c) Ethene
    (d) Ethyne
    Answer: (c) Ethene

  5. Which of the following compounds is a secondary alkanol?
    (i) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH
    (ii) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
    (iii) CH3C(OH)(CH3)CH3
    (a) (i) only
    (b) (ii) only
    (c) (i) and (iii) only
    (d) (ii) and (iii) only
    Answer: (b) (ii) only

  6. Considering the reaction: C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O, the volume of oxygen at STP required to burn 14 g of ethene (C2H4) is:
    (a) 64.2 dm³
    (b) 33.6 dm³
    (c) 11.2 dm³
    (d) 3.73 dm³
    Answer: (b) 33.6 dm³

  7. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte?
    (a) H2SO4
    (b) CH3COOH
    (c) C6H12O6
    (d) NH4Cl
    Answer: (c) C6H12O6 (glucose)

  8. The oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO3 is:
    (a) +4
    (b) +6
    (c) +2
    (d) +3
    Answer: (a) +4

  9. A compound with empirical formula CH2O and molecular mass 90 has the molecular formula:
    (a) C4H10O2
    (b) C3H6O3
    (c) C3H10O2
    (d) C2H2O4
    Answer: (b) C3H6O3

  10. The process of converting starch to glucose is:
    (a) Condensation
    (b) Dehydration
    (c) Fermentation
    (d) Hydrolysis
    Answer: (d) Hydrolysis

  11. Which of the following is used to hasten the ripening of fruits?
    (a) Ethanol
    (b) Ethane
    (c) Ethene
    (d) Ethyne
    Answer: (c) Ethene

  12. Separation technique suitable for separating iodine from tetrachloromethane is:
    (a) Filtration
    (b) Solvent extraction
    (c) Fractional distillation
    (d) Decantation
    Answer: (b) Solvent extraction

  13. Dilute trioxonitrate (V) acid does not produce hydrogen when it reacts with metals because it is a:
    (a) Strong oxidizing agent
    (b) Neutralizing agent
    (c) Weak acid
    (d) Nonreactive acid
    Answer: (a) Strong oxidizing agent

  14. The molar mass of calcium sulfate (CaSO4) is approximately:
    (a) 136
    (b) 120
    (c) 138
    (d) 133
    Answer: (c) 136

  15. Which of the following exhibits a dipole moment?
    (a) CO2
    (b) CH4
    (c) H2O
    (d) Cl2
    Answer: (c) H2O

  16. Zinc dust reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution to give:
    (a) Copper metal and zinc sulfate
    (b) Zinc metal and copper sulfate
    (c) Zinc metal and zinc sulfate
    (d) Copper and copper sulfate
    Answer: (a) Copper metal and zinc sulfate

  17. The process of separating two liquids with close boiling points is called:
    (a) Simple distillation
    (b) Fractional distillation
    (c) Filtration
    (d) Crystallization
    Answer: (b) Fractional distillation

  18. The concentration of a solution is the:
    (a) Mass of solute per unit volume of solvent
    (b) Mass of solute per volume of solution
    (c) Volume of solute per volume of solution
    (d) Volume of solute per unit mass of solvent
    Answer: (b) Mass of solute per volume of solution

  19. The strongest intermolecular force exists in:
    (a) Ionic compounds
    (b) Covalent compounds
    (c) Metallic compounds
    (d) Hydrogen-bonded compounds
    Answer: (a) Ionic compounds

  20. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
    (a) Hydrogen
    (b) Fluorine
    (c) Oxygen
    (d) Nitrogen
    Answer: (b) Fluorine

  21. Dilute trioxonitrate (V) acid does not produce hydrogen when it reacts with metals because:
    (a) It is a strong oxidizing agent
    (b) It reacts with the product
    (c) There is no visible reaction
    (d) It is highly corrosive
    Answer: (a) It is a strong oxidizing agent

  22. How many moles are there in 3.0 g of oxygen? (O = 16)
    (a) 0.0093
    (b) 0.0930
    (c) 0.6250
    (d) 0.0625
    Answer: (d) 0.0625

  23. A mixture containing two salts of different solubility can be separated by:
    (a) Chromatography
    (b) Distillation
    (c) Crystallization
    (d) Evaporation
    Answer: (c) Crystallization

  24. The separation technique suitable for separating iodine from tetrachloromethane is:
    (a) Solvent extraction
    (b) Fractional distillation
    (c) Decantation
    (d) Filtration
    Answer: (a) Solvent extraction

  25. Which of the following laws or theory cannot be explained by the application of the kinetic theory of gases?
    (a) Dalton’s atomic theory
    (b) Charles’ law
    (c) Gay-Lussac’s law
    (d) Boyle’s law
    Answer: (a) Dalton’s atomic theory

  26. The primary component of natural gas is:
    (a) Butane
    (b) Ethane
    (c) Methane
    (d) Propane
    Answer: (c) Methane

  27. Thermal cracking of alkanes usually:
    (a) Involves decomposition
    (b) Is an exothermic process
    (c) Produces only small alkanes
    (d) Requires hydrogen
    Answer: (a) Involves decomposition

  28. What takes place at the cathode during electrolysis?
    (a) Anions lose electrons
    (b) Anions are oxidized
    (c) Cations are discharged
    (d) Cations are oxidized
    Answer: (c) Cations are discharged

  29. How many grams of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) would be needed to produce a given amount? (NaOH = 40.0)
    (a) 0.02 g
    (b) 0.80 g
    (c) 20.0 g
    (d) 800.0 g
    Answer: (b) 0.80 g

  30. The formation of a bond between hydrogen and a highly electronegative atom results in:
    (a) Polarity
    (b) Dipole
    (c) Metallic bond
    (d) Electrovalent bond
    Answer: (a) Polarity

  31. Which of the following is a secondary alkanol?
    (i) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH
    (ii) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
    (iii) CH3C(OH)(CH3)CH3
    (a) (i) only
    (b) (ii) only
    (c) (i) and (iii) only
    (d) (ii) and (iii) only
    Answer: (b) (ii) only

  32. The molar mass of calcium sulfate (CaSO4) is approximately:
    (a) 136
    (b) 120
    (c) 138
    (d) 133
    Answer: (a) 136

  33. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte?
    (a) H2SO4
    (b) CH3COOH
    (c) C6H12O6
    (d) NH4Cl
    Answer: (c) C6H12O6

  34. The oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO3 is:
    (a) +4
    (b) +6
    (c) +2
    (d) +3
    Answer: (a) +4

  35. A compound with empirical formula CH2O and molecular mass 90 has the molecular formula:
    (a) C4H10O2
    (b) C3H6O3
    (c) C3H10O2
    (d) C2H2O4
    Answer: (b) C3H6O3

  36. The process of converting starch to glucose is:
    (a) Condensation
    (b) Dehydration
    (c) Fermentation
    (d) Hydrolysis
    Answer: (d) Hydrolysis

  37. The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is:
    (a) Dihydric alkanol
    (b) Tertiary alkanol
    (c) Trihydric alkanol
    (d) Monohydric alkanol
    Answer: (d) Monohydric alkanol

  38. Ripening of fruits is hastened by using:
    (a) Ethanol
    (b) Ethane
    (c) Ethene
    (d) Ethyne
    Answer: (c) Ethene

  39. A gas that is both a good oxidizing agent and strong acid is:
    (a) CO2
    (b) SO2
    (c) Cl2
    (d) SO3
    Answer: (d) SO3

  40. Which of these compounds is an ester?
    (a) Ethanol
    (b) Ethanoic acid
    (c) Methanol
    (d) Ethyl ethanoate
    Answer: (d) Ethyl ethanoate

  41. The reaction that involves loss of electrons is called:
    (a) Oxidation
    (b) Reduction
    (c) Neutralization
    (d) Dissociation
    Answer: (a) Oxidation

  42. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
    (a) 0
    (b) 7
    (c) 14
    (d) 1
    Answer: (b) 7

  43. Which substance cannot be obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum?
    (a) Gasoline
    (b) Diesel
    (c) Methanol
    (d) Kerosene
    Answer: (c) Methanol

  44. The electron configuration of chlorine (atomic number 17) is:
    (a) 2,8,7
    (b) 2,8,8
    (c) 2,7,8
    (d) 2,8,9
    Answer: (a) 2,8,7

  45. Electrolysis is used to:
    (a) Break down compounds
    (b) Combine elements
    (c) Measure conductivity
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (a) Break down compounds

  46. The metal that reacts vigorously with cold water is:
    (a) Sodium
    (b) Iron
    (c) Copper
    (d) Zinc
    Answer: (a) Sodium

  47. The reaction of an acid and a carbonate produces:
    (a) Salt, water and carbon dioxide
    (b) Salt and water only
    (c) Salt and hydrogen
    (d) Salt and oxygen
    Answer: (a) Salt, water and carbon dioxide

  48. The first ionization energy is:
    (a) The energy to remove an electron from a neutral atom
    (b) The energy to remove a neutron
    (c) The energy to add an electron
    (d) None of these
    Answer: (a) The energy to remove an electron from a neutral atom

  49. A saturated hydrocarbon contains only:
    (a) Single bonds
    (b) Double bonds
    (c) Triple bonds
    (d) Both double and triple bonds
    Answer: (a) Single bonds

  50. The mass of one mole of carbon atoms is:
    (a) 6 g
    (b) 12 g
    (c) 24 g
    (d) 18 g
    Answer: (b) 12 g

  51. Which of the following is an example of an alkene?
    (a) Ethane
    (b) Ethene
    (c) Ethyne
    (d) Methane
    Answer: (b) Ethene

  52. Which of the following pairs of elements will have the greatest electronegativity difference?
    (a) Na and Cl
    (b) C and H
    (c) N and O
    (d) S and Se
    Answer: (a) Na and Cl

  53. The main component of natural gas is:
    (a) Ethane
    (b) Propane
    (c) Methane
    (d) Butane
    Answer: (c) Methane

  54. The process of converting ethanol to ethene is an example of:
    (a) Addition
    (b) Substitution
    (c) Elimination
    (d) Oxidation
    Answer: (c) Elimination

  55. An acid that only partially ionizes in solution is called:
    (a) Strong acid
    (b) Weak acid
    (c) Neutral acid
    (d) Alkali
    Answer: (b) Weak acid

  56. The functional group of alcohols is:
    (a) –COOH
    (b) –OH
    (c) –NH2
    (d) –CHO
    Answer: (b) –OH

  57. The process of adding hydrogen to unsaturated hydrocarbons is known as:
    (a) Hydrogenation
    (b) Hydration
    (c) Halogenation
    (d) Substitution
    Answer: (a) Hydrogenation

  58. The molar mass of oxygen gas (O2) is:
    (a) 16 g/mol
    (b) 32 g/mol
    (c) 8 g/mol
    (d) 48 g/mol
    Answer: (b) 32 g/mol

  59. The substance formed when an acid reacts with a base is:
    (a) Salt and water
    (b) Gas
    (c) Heat only
    (d) Water only
    Answer: (a) Salt and water

  60. The simplest form of any compound expressing the ratio of elements present is the:
    (a) Molecular formula
    (b) Structural formula
    (c) Empirical formula
    (d) Chemical formula
    Answer: (c) Empirical formula

  61. An example of a primary alkanol is:
    (a) Methanol
    (b) Propan-2-ol
    (c) Butan-2-ol
    (d) Ethanoic acid
    Answer: (a) Methanol

  62. A mixture of butanoic acid and ethanol warmed in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid gives off a fragrant odour due to formation of:
    (a) Ester
    (b) Alcohol
    (c) Ether
    (d) Ketone
    Answer: (a) Ester

  63. The valency of nitrogen in NH3 is:
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4
    Answer: (c) 3

  64. An acid with pH 2 is:
    (a) Neutral
    (b) Weakly acidic
    (c) Strongly acidic
    (d) Basic
    Answer: (c) Strongly acidic

  65. Atomic number is the number of:
    (a) Protons only
    (b) Neutrons only
    (c) Electrons only
    (d) Protons plus neutrons
    Answer: (a) Protons only

  66. An increase in temperature generally causes the solubility of solids in liquids to:
    (a) Increase
    (b) Decrease
    (c) Remain constant
    (d) Become zero
    Answer: (a) Increase

  67. The molar volume of a gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) is approximately:
    (a) 24 dm³
    (b) 22.4 dm³
    (c) 10 dm³
    (d) 1 dm³
    Answer: (b) 22.4 dm³

  68. The reaction between an acid and a metal produces:
    (a) Salt and water
    (b) Salt and hydrogen gas
    (c) Salt and carbon dioxide
    (d) Water only
    Answer: (b) Salt and hydrogen gas

  69. In the reaction NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O, HCl is:
    (a) Base
    (b) Acid
    (c) Salt
    (d) Oxide
    Answer: (b) Acid

  70. The greenhouse gas contributing most to global warming is:
    (a) Nitrogen
    (b) Oxygen
    (c) Carbon dioxide
    (d) Argon
    Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

  71. The molecular formula of propane is:
    (a) C2H6
    (b) C3H8
    (c) C4H10
    (d) C3H6
    Answer: (b) C3H8

  72. When hydrogen gas is burned in air, the major product formed is:
    (a) Water
    (b) Carbon dioxide
    (c) Carbon monoxide
    (d) Oxygen
    Answer: (a) Water

  73. The process used to separate two immiscible liquids is:
    (a) Filtration
    (b) Distillation
    (c) Decantation
    (d) Chromatography
    Answer: (c) Decantation

  74. Which of the following is a halogen?
    (a) Sodium
    (b) Chlorine
    (c) Argon
    (d) Oxygen
    Answer: (b) Chlorine

  75. Which of the following is an ionic compound?
    (a) CO2
    (b) NaCl
    (c) CH4
    (d) H2O
    Answer: (b) NaCl

  76. The pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 10−4 mol/dm³ is:
    (a) 4
    (b) 7
    (c) 10
    (d) 14
    Answer: (a) 4

  77. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is:
    (a) +2
    (b) -2
    (c) 0
    (d) +1
    Answer: (b) -2

  78. The atomic number of an element corresponds to the number of:
    (a) Protons in the nucleus
    (b) Neutrons in the nucleus
    (c) Electrons in the outer shell
    (d) Electrons in the inner shell
    Answer: (a) Protons in the nucleus

  79. The gas with a sharp odor used in the laboratory as a disinfectant is:
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Chlorine
    (c) Nitrogen
    (d) Hydrogen
    Answer: (b) Chlorine

  80. The term ‘solubility’ refers to:
    (a) Ability of a solute to dissolve in a solvent
    (b) Density of the solution
    (c) Concentration of a solution
    (d) Purity of a substance
    Answer: (a) Ability of a solute to dissolve in a solvent

  81. The functional group –COOH is found in:
    (a) Alcohols
    (b) Aldehydes
    (c) Carboxylic acids
    (d) Ketones
    Answer: (c) Carboxylic acids

  82. The percentage composition of water in hydrated copper (II) sulfate (CuSO4·5H2O) is approximately:
    (a) 25%
    (b) 36%
    (c) 50%
    (d) 64%
    Answer: (b) 36%

  83. Which of these statements accurately describes an exothermic reaction?
    (a) Absorbs heat from surroundings
    (b) Releases heat to surroundings
    (c) Is independent of temperature
    (d) Involves gases only
    Answer: (b) Releases heat to surroundings

  84. The electron configuration of sodium (Na) is:
    (a) 2, 8, 1
    (b) 2, 7, 2
    (c) 1, 8, 2
    (d) 2, 8, 2
    Answer: (a) 2, 8, 1

  85. The correct formula of calcium phosphate is:
    (a) Ca3(PO4)2
    (b) Ca2PO4
    (c) CaPO4
    (d) Ca3PO4
    Answer: (a) Ca3(PO4)2

  86. The process of converting a liquid to gas at a temperature below boiling point is:
    (a) Boiling
    (b) Melting
    (c) Evaporation
    (d) Condensation
    Answer: (c) Evaporation

  87. The relative molecular mass of methane (CH4) is:
    (a) 12
    (b) 16
    (c) 14
    (d) 18
    Answer: (b) 16

  88. Which of the following elements participates in hydrogen bonding?
    (a) Carbon
    (b) Nitrogen
    (c) Sulfur
    (d) Sodium
    Answer: (b) Nitrogen

  89. The major product of the combustion of any hydrocarbon is:
    (a) Moisture and CO2
    (b) CO
    (c) H2O
    (d) SO2
    Answer: (a) Moisture and CO2

  90. How many moles of hydrogen gas are required to completely react with 1 mole of oxygen gas to form water?
    (a) 1 mole
    (b) 2 moles
    (c) 3 moles
    (d) 4 moles
    Answer: (b) 2 moles

  91. The allotropes of carbon include:
    (a) Diamond and graphite
    (b) Graphite and coke
    (c) Coal and diamond
    (d) Graphite and coal
    Answer: (a) Diamond and graphite

  92. The common oxidation state of group 1 elements in compounds is:
    (a) +1
    (b) +2
    (c) 0
    (d) -1
    Answer: (a) +1

  93. The commercial preparation of hydrogen gas involves:
    (a) Electrolysis of water
    (b) Reaction of acid with metal
    (c) Decomposition of water vapour at high temperature
    (d) All of the above
    Answer: (d) All of the above

  94. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2OH is:
    (a) Methanol
    (b) Ethanol
    (c) Ethanoic acid
    (d) Propanol
    Answer: (b) Ethanol

  95. Which of the following is amphoteric?
    (a) NaOH
    (b) Al(OH)3
    (c) HCl
    (d) NH3
    Answer: (b) Al(OH)3

  96. The compact crystalline form is characteristic of:
    (a) Liquids
    (b) Gases
    (c) Solids
    (d) Plasmas
    Answer: (c) Solids

  97. The number of moles in 18 g of water (H2O) is:
    (a) 0.5 mol
    (b) 1 mol
    (c) 2 mol
    (d) 3 mol
    Answer: (b) 1 mol

  98. The shape of the methane molecule (CH4) is:
    (a) Tetrahedral
    (b) Linear
    (c) Bent
    (d) Trigonal pyramidal
    Answer: (a) Tetrahedral

  99. The catalyst used in the manufacture of ammonia by the Haber process is:
    (a) Nickel
    (b) Platinum
    (c) Iron
    (d) Copper
    Answer: (c) Iron

  100. The correct symbol for the element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 is:
    (a) O
    (b) N
    (c) Cl
    (d) F
    Answer: (c) Cl

  101. Which of the following best defines an isotope?
    (a) Atoms of the same element with different numbers of protons
    (b) Atoms with same atomic number but different mass numbers
    (c) Atoms with different elements having the same mass number
    (d) Atoms with the same mass number and number of neutrons
    Answer: (b) Atoms with same atomic number but different mass numbers

  102. The molecular formula of ethylene is:
    (a) C2H4
    (b) C2H6
    (c) C3H6
    (d) C3H8
    Answer: (a) C2H4

  103. The pH of an aqueous solution with [OH–] = 10−5 mol/L is:
    (a) 5
    (b) 7
    (c) 9
    (d) 10
    Answer: (c) 9

  104. The process in which compounds are broken down by heat in absence of air is:
    (a) Cracking
    (b) Combustion
    (c) Polymerization
    (d) Neutralization
    Answer: (a) Cracking

  105. The anode in an electrolytic cell is where:
    (a) Reduction occurs
    (b) Oxidation occurs
    (c) Electrons enter the cell
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) Oxidation occurs

  106. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
    (a) Propanol-2
    (b) Propanol-1
    (c) Propanone
    (d) Propene
    Answer: (b) Propanol-1

  107. Which element is the most reactive among the halogens?
    (a) Iodine
    (b) Chlorine
    (c) Fluorine
    (d) Bromine
    Answer: (c) Fluorine

  108. What is the major gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc granules?
    (a) Oxygen
    (b) Hydrogen
    (c) Nitrogen
    (d) Carbon dioxide
    Answer: (b) Hydrogen

  109. The empirical formula of a compound with molecular formula C4H10 is:
    (a) CH5
    (b) C2H5
    (c) C4H10
    (d) CH2.5
    Answer: (b) C2H5

  110. The process in which saturated compounds are converted to unsaturated compounds releasing hydrogen gas is called:
    (a) Hydrogenation
    (b) Dehydration
    (c) Cracking
    (d) Dehydrogenation
    Answer: (d) Dehydrogenation

  111. A homologous series is a group of compounds with:
    (a) Different general formula but same functional group
    (b) Similar physical properties and gradual change in chemical properties
    (c) Same physical properties only
    (d) Same chemical properties only
    Answer: (b) Similar physical properties and gradual change in chemical properties

  112. The main component of natural gas is:
    (a) Ethane
    (b) Methane
    (c) Propane
    (d) Butane
    Answer: (b) Methane

  113. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first energy level is:
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 8
    (d) 18
    Answer: (b) 2

  114. Which of the following compounds is an aldehyde?
    (a) CH3CHO
    (b) CH3COOH
    (c) CH3OH
    (d) CH3CH2OH
    Answer: (a) CH3CHO

  115. The molar volume of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) is:
    (a) 22.4 L
    (b) 24.0 L
    (c) 20.1 L
    (d) 25.5 L
    Answer: (a) 22.4 L

  116. Oxidation in terms of electron transfer is:
    (a) Loss of electrons
    (b) Gain of electrons
    (c) Loss of protons
    (d) Gain of protons
    Answer: (a) Loss of electrons

  117. Combustion of carbon in insufficient oxygen gives:
    (a) Carbon dioxide
    (b) Carbon monoxide
    (c) Carbonic acid
    (d) Carbonates
    Answer: (b) Carbon monoxide

  118. Which method is used to obtain pure dry crystals from a solution?
    (a) Filtration
    (b) Crystallization
    (c) Distillation
    (d) Sublimation
    Answer: (b) Crystallization

  119. When an atom gains electrons, it becomes:
    (a) Cation
    (b) Anion
    (c) Neutral
    (d) Isotope
    Answer: (b) Anion

  120. Atomic number of an element gives the number of:
    (a) Neutrons
    (b) Protons
    (c) Electrons in the outer shell
    (d) Total electrons
    Answer: (b) Protons

READ ALSO:  Original WAEC Physics Past Questions and Answers (Updated to 2024)

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